Yiddish Ma'arovis (Western Yiddish)

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09 Jun 2009 02:26 #1064 by BAvis
In Judisch Deutsch we find the word Kauf writen as: קויף. How was this pronounced by Jews of Ashkenaz - kauf, or koyf, as it is written phoenetically? Did this change over time? Is there any connection between the spelling of this word (and others) and the fact that in modern German, when the dipthong 'au' has an umlaut over the letter 'a', it is pronounced 'oy'? Is there any connection between any of the above and the corruption of the pronounciation of the vowel Cholam in Hebrew? (Regarding the last question I recall R' Hamburger mentioning something to this affect in his Seforim. If so I apologize, I hate to address things that are already well documented, as it wastes your time).

BAvis

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12 Jun 2009 15:55 #1069 by Michael
Replied by Michael on topic Yiddish Ma'arovis (Western Yiddish)
The letter Yud was added to strengthen the pronunciation, as we have a Yud in אליך, even though one is not expected to pronounce a Chirik there (we don't say Eleycho, just Elecho, with an emphasis on the "le").
Therefore, when one wanted to write קאוף, he would write it as קויף, in order that the reader would make the "o" of the Cholom not just a regular long "o", but an au.

FRBSH

As you mentioned, in Shorshei Minhag Ashkenaz I (pg 249-250) R' Hamburger discusses this issue. He brings there that in Eastern Europe the Jews read books in Judisch Deutsch, and there קויף was mistakenly read koif instead of kauf.

Michael

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